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FP1 sum of series/proof by induction problem

[SOLVED] why does (K+1)! - 1 + (K+1)(K+1)! = (K+1)!(1+K+1) - 1 therefore = (K+2)! - 1??
(edited 7 years ago)
Bumping off unanswered.

In the future, please post any maths questions like this in the Maths forum :smile:

https://www.thestudentroom.co.uk/forumdisplay.php?f=38
(edited 7 years ago)

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