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Edexcel Mathematics S3 23rd May 2018 - Unofficial Mark Scheme & Discussion

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Original post by ilyacarey
Thanks for finding that - so it is find average rank and then PMCC? And don't use the Spearman formula at all?


Yeah, I think you can't use SRCC for tied ranks
can someone explain how to do last part???

https://i.imgur.com/OtdurXS.jpg
Original post by ilyacarey
1.96=1.25/(4.8/root(n)) gets you 57. The z value is 1.96 because you're looking at half of p=0.05.


I am so so sorry - why is it half of p?
Original post by examstudy
Ok thanks sorry so its because the questions specifically says this confidence interval and the probability of the mean being outside is 10%?


Pretty much, yeah. The tool you've been given instead of a statistic to carry out this test is the confidence interval, and its properties determine your significance level.
Thank you!!
Sorryyy last q this june 15 papers really messing with me aha do you think you could explain why 5d is done like that, I follow that you cannot use the variance formula like usual because they are not independent (like you do for part ii)a )but I dont really understand what they are doing and why, I would have just thought it meant you couldn't work out the variance?

Original post by plklupu
Pretty much, yeah. The tool you've been given instead of a statistic to carry out this test is the confidence interval, and its properties determine your significance level.
(edited 5 years ago)
Original post by assassinbunny123
can someone explain how to do last part???

https://i.imgur.com/OtdurXS.jpg


He's combined the male and female data into just one row, so "people who reported their weight as being..." one of the three columns. He wants to know whether the three body types are chose equally - by this he means whether they follow a discrete uniform distribution, where the expected value is 50 respondents for each category. Calculate x-squared, then check in the tables in the formula booklet for the smallest sig level % given your 2 degrees of freedom for which the chi-squared value is smaller than x-squared, such that H1 is accepted.
Original post by examstudy
Thank you!!
Sorryyy last q this june 15 papers really messing with me aha do you think you could explain why 5d is done like that, I follow that you cannot use the variance formula like usual because they are not independent (like you do for part ii)a )but I dont really understand what they are doing and why, I would have just thought it meant you couldn't work out the variance?


Because they're all based on U, you have to make your U1 into 5U1/5 and combine the fractions into one term. This is not something you could do when your samples were taken from 2 different populations.
Original post by plklupu
Because they're all based on U, you have to make your U1 into 5U1/5 and combine the fractions into one term. This is not something you could do when your samples were taken from 2 different populations.


Is this anywhere in the textbook? I dont remember learning this:s-smilie:
So if they are from the same population you find the variance a different way by combining them and then use the variance formula despite them not being independent?
Original post by examstudy
Is this anywhere in the textbook? I dont remember learning this:s-smilie:
So if they are from the same population you find the variance a different way by combining them and then use the variance formula despite them not being independent?


It's kind of the stuff in the textbook taken to a higher conceptual level, it is really tricky stuff.

Well the reason you combine them to one fraction is so you have the correct fraction to square when finding variance. Once you find that one fraction, you combine them to find E(whatever) and Var(whatever) normally - it is an independent sample, it's just got a different probability to the other independent sample since that one was from 2 different populations, which is why you need to calculate almost the same thing again.
Original post by plklupu
He's combined the male and female data into just one row, so "people who reported their weight as being..." one of the three columns. He wants to know whether the three body types are chose equally - by this he means whether they follow a discrete uniform distribution, where the expected value is 50 respondents for each category. Calculate x-squared, then check in the tables in the formula booklet for the smallest sig level % given your 2 degrees of freedom for which the chi-squared value is smaller than x-squared, such that H1 is accepted.

i did that before but isnt the H0 that a uniform distribution is suitable for this model. and H1 says it isn't suitable?
how is this an association hypothesis? wouldn't we use r-1 c-1 but then that would give 0 which isn't possible. sigh...........
Original post by plklupu
It's kind of the stuff in the textbook taken to a higher conceptual level, it is really tricky stuff.

Well the reason you combine them to one fraction is so you have the correct fraction to square when finding variance. Once you find that one fraction, you combine them to find E(whatever) and Var(whatever) normally - it is an independent sample, it's just got a different probability to the other independent sample since that one was from 2 different populations, which is why you need to calculate almost the same thing again.


Ohhh that makes sense your making it into one statistic so that its from one population and solve normally from there? Is it just me or is that paper on such a different level to the others:frown:
Original post by assassinbunny123
i did that before but isnt the H0 that a uniform distribution is suitable for this model. and H1 says it isn't suitable?
how is this an association hypothesis? wouldn't we use r-1 c-1 but then that would give 0 which isn't possible. sigh...........


It isn't an association hypothesis any more, it's a test for whether the discrete uniform is a good model. Your first sentence is correct. You can no longer consider it a contingency table.
Original post by examstudy
Ohhh that makes sense your making it into one statistic so that its from one population and solve normally from there? Is it just me or is that paper on such a different level to the others:frown:


Yeah, essentially. I agree, it's a nasty paper. Lower grade boundaries though!
Original post by plklupu
Yeah, essentially. I agree, it's a nasty paper. Lower grade boundaries though!


not low enough!
https://i.imgur.com/sM58oAU.jpg
for my confidence interval is
(-1.06,9.06)
how do I convert this into the time?
part b(I)
Original post by assassinbunny123
https://i.imgur.com/sM58oAU.jpg
for my confidence interval is
(-1.06,9.06)
how do I convert this into the time?
part b(I)


You can use the button on your calculator (the one that looks like degrees and apostrophes) or just do it manually, by considering how many seconds in .06 of a minute.
Reply 96
Original post by ilyacarey
For a hypothesis test where we're testing whether a binomial distribution with p= (e.g.) 0.3 is a suitable model, should you give the p value in the hypothesis or not? In some mark schemes you lose a mark for giving the p value whilst in other papers you lose a mark if you do not (e.g. June 2016 question 6). Thank you!


Depends on what we're testing.

If we're testing whether a binomial distribution with p = 0.3 is a suitable model, then yes, of course you should give the p value in the hypothesis because this is what we're testing! (example, June 2016 6a: penalise omission of p = 0.3)

However if we're testing whether a binomial distribution is a suitable model, then no, because we're not testing a specific p, just Binomial - after we have assumed H0 we use the data to calculate p and then use this to find our expected values. (example, June 2014 5d: penalise p = 0.6)

Hope this helps
Original post by pdbh32
Depends on what we're testing.

If we're testing whether a binomial distribution with p = 0.3 is a suitable model, then yes, of course you should give the p value in the hypothesis because this is what we're testing! (example, June 2016 6a: penalise omission of p = 0.3)

However if we're testing whether a binomial distribution is a suitable model, then no, because we're not testing a specific p, just Binomial - after we have assumed H0 we use the data to calculate p and then use this to find our expected values. (example, June 2014 5d: penalise p = 0.6)

Hope this helps


An excellent summary of something I only learned 3 days ago!
Good luck guys, i think edexcel is going to give us a standard paper with one or two hard parts
https://gyazo.com/5687e3a36e9780e222ad7ff9d2841091

I made a little prediction, I hope it's right!

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