mxk_fr_7
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Hi guys, i have a question about newtons laws. The question is , if for example, i exert a force on a door then a equal and opposite force from the door will be exerted upon me. If this is the case then how does the door move if the forces are both equal and opposite? Thanks
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Htx_x346
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(Original post by mxk_fr_7)
Hi guys, i have a question about newtons laws. The question is , if for example, i exert a force on a door then a equal and opposite force from the door will be exerted upon me. If this is the case then how does the door move if the forces are both equal and opposite? Thanks
the door moves because there's a force being applied to it? F=ma
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Sinnoh
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The forces are being exerted on two different things. The door is not applying an equal and opposite force to itself, it's applying the force to the person pushing it.
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Kallisto
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(Original post by mxk_fr_7)
Hi guys, i have a question about newtons laws. The question is , if for example, i exert a force on a door then a equal and opposite force from the door will be exerted upon me. If this is the case then how does the door move if the forces are both equal and opposite? Thanks
That is actio and reactio principle, I guess. Objects - so a door too - have an inertia, that is to say a counterforce is caused equal to the excerted force to stay in the resting position: -F = F
Last edited by Kallisto; 6 months ago
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mxk_fr_7
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(Original post by Sinnoh)
The forces are being exerted on two different things. The door is not applying an equal and opposite force to itself, it's applying the force to the person pushing it.
Yes, i understand that however wouldnt that mean the forces cancel out ? So how does the door move as a result
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Callicious
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(Original post by mxk_fr_7)
Yes, i understand that however wouldnt that mean the forces cancel out ? So how does the door move as a result
The forces are on two different things... not the same body... why would they cancel out?
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Sinnoh
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(Original post by mxk_fr_7)
Yes, i understand that however wouldnt that mean the forces cancel out ? So how does the door move as a result
You also need to remember that 0 resultant force means that velocity is constant - not necessarily 0.
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Eimmanuel
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(Original post by mxk_fr_7)
Hi guys, i have a question about newtons laws. The question is , if for example, i exert a force on a door then a equal and opposite force from the door will be exerted upon me. If this is the case then how does the door move if the forces are both equal and opposite? Thanks
This is quite a common question. I can understand where you come from and believe that your confusion originates from not discerning Newton 2nd law and Newton 3rd law.

Let talk about your question. Call the force that you exert on the door be
 \vec{F}_{\text{You} \to \text{door}}

while the force that the door exerts on you be
 \vec{F}_{\text{ door } \to \text{ You }}

From Newton’s 3rd law, we note that
 \vec{F}_{\text{You} \to \text{door}} = -\vec{F}_{\text{ door } \to \text{ You }}

what is important is to note that the force is exerting different “object” NOT same “object” as mentioned by many others.

To decide whether the object “moves” or NOT, we need to use Newton 2nd law. Sum all the forces that exert on that object vectorially:
Apply Newton 2nd law to the door:
 \vec{F}_{\text{You} \to \text{door}} + \text{other forces exerting on the door} = m_{\text{door}} \vec{a}

Note that we are summing the forces that exert on the door NOT the force that the door exerts on another object.

Apply Newton 2nd law to the you:
 \vec{F}_{\text{ door } \to \text{ You }} + \text{other forces exerting on You} = m_{\text{You}} \vec{a}

Similarly, we are summing the forces that exert on You NOT the force that You exerts on another object.

Do you see any cancellation of the two forces?

Hope this makes sense to you now.
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