The Student Room Group

The Proof is Trivial!

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Original post by ζ(s)
01ln(1+x2)xdx=01n=0(1)nx2n+1n+1dx=n=001(1)nx2n+1n+1dx=n=0(1)n(n+1)(2n+2)=12n=0(1)n(n+1)2=12(112)n=01(n+1)2=14n=11n2=14(π26)=π224.\begin{aligned} \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{x} \, dx & = \int_{0}^{1} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{n+1}\,dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1} \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{n+1}\,dx \\& = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)(2n+2)} = \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} \\& = \frac{1}{2} \left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)\sum_{n=0}^{ \infty} \frac{1}{(n+1)^2} = \frac{1}{4} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \\& = \frac{1}{4}\left(\frac{\pi^2}{6} \right) = \frac{\pi^2}{24}. \end{aligned}


beautiful username bernhard
Not at all a contribution to this thread, and I know the title is obviously tongue in cheek since most of the stuff in here is not trivial but...


I absolutely think the sentence "the proof is trivial" should ABSOLUTELY BE BANNED from university lecture notes.

I cannot stand it when you open a set of lecture notes on something you understand precisely nothing about, and within the first couple of pages the author is stating theorem after theorem "leaving the proof of the theorem to the reader" because "the proof is trivial" :angry:. Yes it may be trivial IF you understand the topic but if I understood said topic I wouldn't be reading the first couple of pages on a set of notes for it...

/Rant over :tongue:.
Original post by ζ(s)
01ln(1+x2)xdx=01n=0(1)nx2n+1n+1dx=n=001(1)nx2n+1n+1dx=n=0(1)n(n+1)(2n+2)=12n=0(1)n(n+1)2=12(112)n=01(n+1)2=14n=11n2=14(π26)=π224.\begin{aligned} \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{x} \, dx & = \int_{0}^{1} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{n+1}\,dx = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\int_{0}^{1} \frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{n+1}\,dx \\& = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)(2n+2)} = \frac{1}{2} \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^n}{(n+1)^2} \\& = \frac{1}{2} \left(1-\frac{1}{2}\right)\sum_{n=0}^{ \infty} \frac{1}{(n+1)^2} = \frac{1}{4} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \\& = \frac{1}{4}\left(\frac{\pi^2}{6} \right) = \frac{\pi^2}{24}. \end{aligned}

This is a thing of beauty. I would have just contour-integrated, and my answer would have been horrible.
Now how about

Problem 467**

01ln(1+x2)1+xdx \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1 + x} \, dx ?

:colone: though perhaps the way I did it was over-complicated, I don't know
Original post by jjpneed1
Now how about

Problem 467**

01ln(1+x2)1+xdx \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1 + x} \, dx ?

:colone: though perhaps the way I did it was over-complicated, I don't know


Solution 467

01ln(1+x2)1+xdx[br][br]=01ln(1+x2)1dx+01ln(1+x2)xdx\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1 + x} dx[br][br]=\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1} dx + \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{x} dx


=π224+2+π2+log(2)= \frac{\pi^2}{24}+-2+\frac{\pi}{2}+log(2)

Using the previous result and integrating log(1+x2)log(1+x^2) by parts (basic integral, nothing worth showing).

EDIT: I've just realised this is a load of rubbish.
(edited 10 years ago)
Original post by james22
Solution 467

01ln(1+x2)1+xdx[br][br]=01ln(1+x2)1dx+01ln(1+x2)xdx\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1 + x} dx[br][br]=\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1} dx + \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{x} dx


=π224+2+π2+log(2)= \frac{\pi^2}{24}+-2+\frac{\pi}{2}+log(2)

Using the previous result and integrating log(1+x2)log(1+x^2) by parts (basic integral, nothing worth showing).


How did you get from the first line to the second line?
Original post by majmuh24
Can you break up a fraction from the sum in the denominator like that? I thought that only worked in the numerator

Posted from TSR Mobile

You can't (usually) so it's either an error or a special case in this situation.
Original post by james22
Solution 467

01ln(1+x2)1+xdx[br][br]=01ln(1+x2)1dx+01ln(1+x2)xdx\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1 + x} dx[br][br]=\displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{1} dx + \displaystyle \int_0^{1} \frac{\ln(1 + x^2)}{x} dx


=π224+2+π2+log(2)= \frac{\pi^2}{24}+-2+\frac{\pi}{2}+log(2)

Using the previous result and integrating log(1+x2)log(1+x^2) by parts (basic integral, nothing worth showing).


Not correct I'm afraid, I've never seen an integral broken up like that before but I guess you had a reason?
Original post by jjpneed1
Not correct I'm afraid, I've never seen an integral broken up like that before but I guess you had a reason?


Did you use integration by parts?

Spoiler

(edited 10 years ago)
I don't like integrals. But you guys sure do. Here's one I can only do via complex analysis; I wonder if anyone can manage it without it:

Problem 468***

0πcos2x5+4cosx dx\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi}\dfrac{\cos^2 x}{5+4\cos x}\ dx
Original post by FireGarden
I don't like integrals. But you guys sure do. Here's one I can only do via complex analysis; I wonder if anyone can manage it without it:

Problem 468***

0πcos2x5+4cosx dx\displaystyle\int_0^{\pi}\dfrac{\cos^2 x}{5+4\cos x}\ dx


You're joking right?

Spoiler

(edited 10 years ago)
Original post by jjpneed1
You're joking right?


Why would I be joking? Have you seen half the integrals in this thread.. I just wolfram'd this thing and it has one gnarly antiderivative, but even then, some integrals in this thread don't even have antiderivatives at all.
Original post by FireGarden
Why would I be joking? Have you seen half the integrals in this thread.. I just wolfram'd this thing and it has one gnarly antiderivative, but even then, some integrals in this thread don't even have antiderivatives at all.


Surely you would try long division before complex analysis?? Then it's just a t-sub away :confused:
Original post by Khallil
How did you get from the first line to the second line?



Original post by majmuh24
Can you break up a fraction from the sum in the denominator like that? I thought that only worked in the numerator

Posted from TSR Mobile



Original post by keromedic
You can't (usually) so it's either an error or a special case in this situation.



Original post by jjpneed1
Not correct I'm afraid, I've never seen an integral broken up like that before but I guess you had a reason?


I din't do anything special, my brain just stopped functioning.
Original post by jjpneed1
Surely you would try long division before complex analysis?? Then it's just a t-sub away :confused:


Well, I did say I don't really like integrals! If a sledge hammer I have I know will work and I have no other immediate ideas, I usually get on with it. Have you tried it, though?
Original post by FireGarden
Well, I did say I don't really like integrals! If a sledge hammer I have I know will work and I have no other immediate ideas, I usually get on with it. Have you tried it, though?


Oh fair enough, I apologise! Yeah I did try it and got 5π/24 5\pi/24
(edited 10 years ago)
Original post by jjpneed1
Oh fair enough :colondollar:. Yeah I did try it and got 5π/24 5\pi/24


That's what I got. Indeed, my integration ability is embarrassing :redface:
Original post by FireGarden
That's what I got. Indeed, my integration ability is embarrassing :redface:


No way, if I knew complex analysis I'd try and use it on every problem, it's pretty cool :biggrin:
Original post by jjpneed1
No way, if I knew complex analysis I'd try and use it on every problem, it's pretty cool :biggrin:

Nah, DUTIS is way cooler. It seems like absolute magic.
Original post by Smaug123
Nah, DUTIS is way cooler. It seems like absolute magic.


If cool is what we want, here's the coolest evaluation of an integral I've seen.

We want to evaluate eax2 dx=f(a)\displaystyle\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} e^{-ax^2}\ dx = f(a).

We will proceed with dimensional analysis. Suppose x represents some length, so it has dimension [L][L]. The exp function is required to have dimensionless input (as it is dimensionless itself), so aa must have dimension [L]2[L]^{-2}, and dxdx of course has dimension [L][L].


Overall the LHS has dimension [1][L][1][L]. Thus f(a)f(a) has these dimensions too, so f(a)=kaf(a)=\frac{k}{\sqrt{a}} where kk is a dimensionless constant. In particular, f(1)=πf(1)=\sqrt{\pi} which defines this constant, hence f(a)=πaf(a)=\sqrt{\frac{\pi}{a}}

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