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M7 Mechanics Question 1

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Original post by zetamcfc
D3+ would start to get interesting actually :smile:


Omg triggered


Posted from TSR Mobile
outer surface....do you mean the external one? Are the available forces adequate for such a motion? I am missing sth.
Original post by drandy76


C'mon you could do some proper graph theory and other stuff, it would be fun.


OK, I'm struggling to finish this off at the moment but my approach was as follows:

Spoiler

(edited 8 years ago)
come on exam boards bring on M8 if you think you're hard enough

:pwnd:

:horns:
Reply 85
Taking the origin at the vertex and z increasing downwards

there are 4 equations

1.

transversly conservation of angular momentum

2.

radially (usual polar acceleration = Rcos(...)

3.

r = ztan (...) which can be differentiated and used where needed

4.

mz (double dot) = mg - Rsin (...)

Original post by zetamcfc
C'mon you could do some proper graph theory and other stuff, it would be fun.


Noooo, I barely tolerated all the definitions and simplex iterations last year, no more


Posted from TSR Mobile
Have a look, it is close enough but...
(edited 8 years ago)
Original post by TeeEm


mz (double dot) = mg - Rsin (...)

This is where I'm having problems. I've drawn a diagram of the situation as described in the question, with the particle on the outer surface of the inverted cone. In my diagram, mz (double dot) is not mg - Rsin (...) but rather
-mg - Rsin (...) (i.e. both are minus and not plus and minus, if we take the downward to be positive then both terms will be positive). Can someone clear this up? I currently have the correct answer except the two terms have the same sign and not different signs.
Reply 89
Original post by A Slice of Pi
This is where I'm having problems. I've drawn a diagram of the situation as described in the question, with the particle on the outer surface of the inverted cone. In my diagram, mz (double dot) is not mg - Rsin (...) but rather
-mg - Rsin (...) (i.e. both are minus and not plus and minus, if we take the downward to be positive then both terms will be positive). Can someone clear this up? I currently have the correct answer except the two terms have the same sign and not different signs.


the cone is the other way round
Original post by TeeEm
the cone is the other way round

That would make more sense, but in the question wasn't it called an 'inverted' cone?
Reply 91
Original post by A Slice of Pi
That would make more sense, but in the question wasn't it called an 'inverted' cone?


I am teaching at present to have a discussion but the cone in that orientation is inverted
Original post by TeeEm
I am teaching at present to have a discussion but the cone in that orientation is inverted

Well, I think it's definitely debatable. I'd maybe include a diagram in questions like this
Original post by depymak
Have a look, it is close enough but...

Your method is very good :smile:. I think its actually the angle 'alpha' in the diagram that is incorrectly labelled, which is a shame because the rest of it is perfectly correct
Reply 94
My solution
Motion on a cone.jpg
thanks, I misinterpreted the term "semi-vertical angle " !
Original post by A Slice of Pi
Your method is very good :smile:. I think its actually the angle 'alpha' in the diagram that is incorrectly labelled, which is a shame because the rest of it is perfectly correct


My solution:

We locate the particle on the cone of semi-vertical angle α\alpha via cylindrical polar coords r,θ,zr, \theta, z, with zz increasing downwards. The initial angular momentum of the particle about the z-axis is J=maUJ =maU and the motion of the particle is subject to the constraint:

f(r,z)=rztanα=0f(r,z)=r-z\tan \alpha = 0

Its KE, TT, and PE, VV, are given by:

T=12m(r˙2+r2θ˙2+z˙2)T = \frac{1}{2}m(\dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\theta}^2 + \dot{z}^2)
V=mgzV = -mgz

taking V=0V=0 to be at the vertex of the cone, and VV decreasing downwards.

The Euler-Lagrange equations for a particle with generalised coords qiq_i subject to a holonomic constraint f(q1,q2,,qn,t)=0f(q_1, q_2, \cdots, q_n, t)=0 are:

ddt(Lqi˙)Lqiλfqi=0\displaystyle \frac{d}{dt}\big(\frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{q_i}}\big)-\frac{\partial L}{\partial q_i} -\lambda \frac{\partial f}{\partial q_i} =0

where L=TVL=T-V and where we have qir,θ,zq_i \in {r,\theta,z}. Also, the force of constraint conjugate to qiq_i is:

Qqi=λfqiQ_{q_i} = \lambda \frac{\partial f}{\partial q_i}

and these forces act in the direction of increasing qiq_i

So for this problem, the E-L equations give (details omitted):

(1) mr¨mrθ˙2λ=0m\ddot{r} -mr\dot{\theta}^2-\lambda =0

(2) ddt(mr2θ˙)=0mr2θ˙=J\frac{d}{dt}(mr^2\dot{\theta}) = 0 \Rightarrow mr^2\dot{\theta} = J where JJ is the conserved angular momentum.

(3) mz¨mg+λtanα=0m\ddot{z} -mg+\lambda \tan \alpha =0

Now using (2) to eliminate θ˙\dot{\theta} from (1) gives:

mr¨J2mr3λ=0λ=mr¨J2mr3m\ddot{r} - \frac{J^2}{mr^3} -\lambda =0 \Rightarrow \lambda = m\ddot{r} - \frac{J^2}{mr^3} (4)

and using the equation of constraint to eliminate zz from (3) gives:

mr¨tanαmg+λtanα=0mr¨=tanα(mgλtanα)m\ddot{r} \tan \alpha -mg+\lambda \tan \alpha =0 \Rightarrow m\ddot{r} = \tan \alpha (mg -\lambda \tan \alpha) (5)

So (4) and (5) give us, after some algebra:

λ=cos2α(mgtanαJ2mr3)=mcos2α(gtanαa2U2r3)\lambda = \cos^2 \alpha (mg \tan \alpha - \frac{J^2}{mr^3}) = m\cos^2 \alpha (g \tan \alpha - \frac{a^2U^2}{r^3})

So the constraint force conjugate to rr is:

Qr=λfr=λQ_r = \lambda \frac{\partial f}{\partial r} = \lambda

But this is the constraint force in the direction of increasing rr, and is thus the horizontal component of the normal reaction RR so we have:

Qr=RcosαR=Qrcosα=mcosα(gtanαa2U2r3)Q_r = R \cos\alpha \Rightarrow R = \frac{Q_r}{\cos \alpha} = m\cos \alpha (g \tan \alpha - \frac{a^2U^2}{r^3})

as required.

Note that my other approach would have been much quicker if it wasn't for the fact that I couldn't find the radius of curvature of the ellipse in question. So while the workings above represent another triumph for M. Lagrange, I suspect that my other method was more Newtonian in character, and probably could have been completed easily by Mr Newton, who would have known all about ellipses.
nice!
Original post by TeeEm
My solution
Motion on a cone.jpg
Reply 98
Original post by atsruser
....


Lagrangian considerations make it at least M9 ....
Original post by TeeEm
Lagrangian considerations make it at least M9 ....


Well, I couldn't finish my quick 'n dirty method, and other people had done it the obvious way, so I had little choice but to bring out the big guns. Maybe hides the physical insight though, compared to getting down and dirty with the forces.

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