The Student Room Group

Edexcel FP2 Official 2016 Exam Thread - 8th June 2016

Scroll to see replies

Original post by oinkk
I'd use the symmetry of the curves (i.e., deal with everything above the initial line, then double at the end).

Work out the area bounded by the sector above the initial line (C2 formula), and then integrate the curve C1 between pi/3 and pi.

... and then double your answer to that.

Thank you! :smile:
Original post by economicss
Hi, does anyone know please whether the integral in question 6 here is on the spec http://madasmaths.com/archive/maths_booklets/further_topics/integration/1st_order_differential_equations_substitutions.pdf as I've not seen an integral that leads to arctan as the answer before? Thanks :smile:


It's covered in FP3, probably won't show up in FP2. It's pretty simple to do just using C3/4 knowledge, though - just think of an appropriate trig substitute.
Please could anyone explain question 11, especially part c, really struggling with these complex types! Thank you :smile: @Zackenimage.jpg
Reply 603
Original post by economicss
Please could anyone explain question 11, especially part c, really struggling with these complex types! Thank you :smile: @Zackenimage.jpg


From part a(i) and a(ii) you get lambad =3 and mu=-sqrt(3)
From the sketch you did in part b, you have 4 points that belong on the circle.
So, you can subistute the cartesian equivlents of these points into the equation for a circle (x-a)^2 + (y-b)^2 = r^2 and then solve silmutaneously. Because the 4 points lie on either the x or y axis, this makes it a lot easier to solve.
you should get centre (-0.5(1+sqrt(3)), 0.5(1+sqrt(3)))
Original post by kennz
From part a(i) and a(ii) you get lambad =3 and mu=-sqrt(3)
From the sketch you did in part b, you have 4 points that belong on the circle.
So, you can subistute the cartesian equivlents of these points into the equation for a circle (x-a)^2 + (y-b)^2 = r^2 and then solve silmutaneously. Because the 4 points lie on either the x or y axis, this makes it a lot easier to solve.
you should get centre (-0.5(1+sqrt(3)), 0.5(1+sqrt(3)))


Thanks for your help :smile: how did you get the values for lambda and mu in the first part please? Thanks :smile:
Can anyone help me with part c please as it doesnt mention z so i dont know how to bring z-3i in
Original post by rm761
Can anyone help me with part c please as it doesnt mention z so i dont know how to bring z-3i in

It must be a mistake, otherwise how can it transform from the z plane to the w plane if it doesn't contain z? Try w = 2i/z
Reply 607
Original post by economicss
Thanks for your help :smile: how did you get the values for lambda and mu in the first part please? Thanks :smile:




sorry for the late reply
for part a(i), you can use argz= arctan(b/a) where b=complex part and a=real part.
since the number lamba has no real part, subsitute z=bi
split the arg(bi-i/bi+1) into arg(bi-i)-arg(bi+1) = pi/6
arg(bi-i)=arg(i(b+1))=pi/2 so now
pi/2-pi/6=pi/3=arg(bi+1)
tan both sides as arg(bi+1) = arctan (b)
therefore b=tanpi/3 = sqrt(3)

for part a(ii) the logic is the same but substute z=a where a=real part as mu lies on the real axis so imaginary part =0 and then split the arg again.
I can go through this if you want but I'll let you try part a(ii) first. Its quite an intuitive solution but Im pretty sure its correct.
fp2 june 2014 q6 b.jpg June 2014 FP2 question 6 (b)

For question 6 (b) in the second line of working where does the -3 come from in the first bracket?
Original post by kennz
sorry for the late reply
for part a(i), you can use argz= arctan(b/a) where b=complex part and a=real part.
since the number lamba has no real part, subsitute z=bi
split the arg(bi-i/bi+1) into arg(bi-i)-arg(bi+1) = pi/6
arg(bi-i)=arg(i(b+1))=pi/2 so now
pi/2-pi/6=pi/3=arg(bi+1)
tan both sides as arg(bi+1) = arctan (b)
therefore b=tanpi/3 = sqrt(3)

for part a(ii) the logic is the same but substute z=a where a=real part as mu lies on the real axis so imaginary part =0 and then split the arg again.
I can go through this if you want but I'll let you try part a(ii) first. Its quite an intuitive solution but Im pretty sure its correct.

No problem, thank you :smile: I understand now up to splitting the args but how do you know the value of arg(bi-i) and arg(bi+1) I tried it for part ii aswell but got stuck at finding the values of the args again? Thanks for your help :smile:
Original post by Music With Rocks
fp2 june 2014 q6 b.jpg June 2014 FP2 question 6 (b)

For question 6 (b) in the second line of working where does the -3 come from in the first bracket?


Because we're told in the question that the equation of the circle is in the form (u-3) squared +v squared= k squared :smile: Hope that helps
Original post by economicss
Because we're told in the question that the equation of the circle is in the form (u-3) squared +v squared= k squared :smile: Hope that helps


ohhhhhhh yes that helps, I get it now. Thank you very much :smile:
Original post by Music With Rocks
ohhhhhhh yes that helps, I get it now. Thank you very much :smile:


No problem :smile:
Reply 613
Original post by economicss
No problem, thank you :smile: I understand now up to splitting the args but how do you know the value of arg(bi-i) and arg(bi+1) I tried it for part ii aswell but got stuck at finding the values of the args again? Thanks for your help :smile:

we know the value of arg(bi-i) as its purely imaginary and since b>1, the complex number (bi-i) lies on the positive imaginary axis so its argument is pi/2.

we dont know the value of arg (bi+1) but we know the angle is arctan(b/1)=arctan(b).

for part (ii)
arg(a-i/a+1)=pi/6
since a<-1, the complex number a+1 lies on the negative real axis so its agrument is pi, therefore arg(a-i)-pi=pi/6 so arg(a-i)=7pi/6
now arg(a-i)=arctan(-1/a) so -1/a=tan(7pi/6)=-1/sqrt(3)
therefore a=-sqrt(3)
(edited 7 years ago)
Reply 614
jan 2003 q8.png
Can anyone explain part c to me please? The mark scheme says x=-1/4 a then WX = 2a +1/4 a but I dont understand how they have got this. Thanks
Original post by lkara
jan 2003 q8.png
Can anyone explain part c to me please? The mark scheme says x=-1/4 a then WX = 2a +1/4 a but I dont understand how they have got this. Thanks


The distance from O horiztontally to the left of the box is 1/4a

The distance from O horizontally to the right of the box is r = a(1+1) = 2a by subbing in theta = 0 into the polar eq.

Then asding these two distances gives you the total didtance from the left to the right of the box.
Original post by Music With Rocks
fp2 june 2014 q6 b.jpg June 2014 FP2 question 6 (b)

For question 6 (b) in the second line of working where does the -3 come from in the first bracket?


The question says (u -3)^2.
Reply 617
Original post by Zacken
The distance from O horiztontally to the left of the box is 1/4a

The distance from O horizontally to the right of the box is r = a(1+1) = 2a by subbing in theta = 0 into the polar eq.

Then asding these two distances gives you the total didtance from the left to the right of the box.


Ahhh that makes sense now, thank you!
Reply 618
Is it correct to assume that if you pick any two points on a circle and its perpendicular bisector of the line joining these points goes through the centre of circle?
Just a quick question;

I was doing this first order differential equation...
Screenshot_72.pngScreenshot_71.png
and I don't know whether I'd get the last 2 marks or not. I got everything correct up until the last line, where, rather than putting the answer they give, I put the middle term as sin(2x)/4xsin(x)sin(2x)/4xsin(x), an unsimplified, but correct answer. But because I didn't simplify fully, would I lose those two marks? The question doesn't say simplify fully so I didn't, but I didn't want to assume just in case :P

Thanks for your help in advance :smile:

Quick Reply

Latest

Trending

Trending