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Something is only infinite if the answer approaches infinity?

I was watching a maths video and the person claimed 1/0 was infinity, but I heard something is only infinite if it approaches infinity, despite the Google dictionary defining infinite as 'limitless or endless in space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate'. No amount of 0s will ever reach 1 (zero is nothing!) So surely 1/0 is undefined, and does anyone know if it does need to approach infinity to classed as infinite?
Original post by Al4stair
I was watching a maths video and the person claimed 1/0 was infinity, but I heard something is only infinite if it approaches infinity, despite the Google dictionary defining infinite as 'limitless or endless in space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate'. No amount of 0s will ever reach 1 (zero is nothing!) So surely 1/0 is undefined, and does anyone know if it does need to approach infinity to classed as infinite?


You can't say anything *is* infinite because infinity is not a number. The best you can do is use the phrase 'tends towards' when talking about limits and so we get that 1x\dfrac{1}{x} \rightarrow \infty as x0x \rightarrow 0
Reply 2
Original post by RDKGames
You can't say anything *is* infinite because infinity is not a number. The best you can do is use the phrase 'tends towards' when talking about limits and so we get that 1x\dfrac{1}{x} \rightarrow \infty as x0x \rightarrow 0


Yes, so can you say 1/0 tends to infinity, because it never approaches infinity?
(edited 6 years ago)
Original post by Al4stair
Yes, so you can you say 1/0 tends to infinity, because it never approaches infinity?


This statement doesn't make sense.

For one, you used 1/0 which is an undefined quantity. It doesn't tend to anything.

Secondly, since you want to talk about 1/x instead as x0x \rightarrow 0, the phrases "tends to" and "approaches" are interchangeable. So your statement is the same as saying "1/x tends to infinity because it never tends to infinity" and clearly you can see how this doesn't make sense.
Reply 4
Original post by RDKGames
This statement doesn't make sense.

For one, you used 1/0 which is an undefined quantity. It doesn't tend to anything.

Secondly, since you want to talk about 1/x instead as x0x \rightarrow 0, the phrases "tends to" and "approaches" are interchangeable. So your statement is the same as saying "1/x tends to infinity because it never tends to infinity" and clearly you can see how this doesn't make sense.


No. I am talking about 1/0. I don't know why you are using x as if the denominator is a variable, it is not. But anyway according to what you written, x=0 in what I am looking at (you said 1/x).

You said 'the phrases "tends to" and "approaches" are interchangeable', I understand this and never implied otherwise.

I never at all said "1/x tends to infinity because it never tends to infinity" (again x=0 ...). If you read my post, I am specifically stating otherwise and exactly said that 1/0 is an undefined quantity.

So to re-iterate. I read online of someone claiming that 1/0 has an infinite answer. This matches the definition which states that infinite means 'limitless or endless in space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate' as an endless amount of zeroes would have to be used (but will never reach 1, which brings me onto the point of the question). As no amount of zeroes will ever make up 1, 1 divided by 0 surely does not have an infinite amount of answers. HOWEVER, this would require the definition of infinite to include that for something to be classified as infinite, the value must approach (or tend to, once again I do understand they are synonymous). However the definition of infinite mentioned previously (limitless or endless in space, extent, or size; impossible to measure or calculate) does not include this clause.

So to summarise, and the main reason why I made this post is to ask, for something to classified as infinite, does the value involved have to approach infinity, or does an endless amount of the value have to be used (or try to be used) to reach infinity as in the case of 1/0?
Original post by Al4stair
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As I said, 1/0 is not infinity. You may say it is infinity in context for the sake of understanding a concept at hand, but you cannot say 10=\frac{1}{0}=\infty generally because infinity is not a number.

Just because 1/x tends to infinity as x tends to 0, it does not imply that 1/x *is* infinity at x=0
Reply 6
Original post by RDKGames
You can't say anything *is* infinite because infinity is not a number. The best you can do is use the phrase 'tends towards' when talking about limits and so we get that 1x\dfrac{1}{x} \rightarrow \infty as x0x \rightarrow 0


1/x 1/x\rightarrow -\infty as x0 x\rightarrow 0^- .
Original post by B_9710
1/x 1/x\rightarrow -\infty as x0 x\rightarrow 0^- .


Yes, I thought about mentioning this but decided not to in the end.
Reply 8
In Hausdorff space if limxaflimxaf\displaystyle \lim_{x \nearrow a}f \ne \lim_{x \searrow a} f then ff is undefined at aa. None more need be said!

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