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    (Original post by physicsmaths)
    Is the trick writing it as e^something?


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    use the natural log
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    (Original post by 11234)
    That was a fun one. Thnx. Do you have any more?
    this is an old one of mine
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  1. File Type: pdf pioukj.pdf (16.8 KB, 57 views)
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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    take natural logs first, then implicit,

    for nature rather than second derivatives examine the sign of the first derivative at either side of the point
    I know that trick but thought the
    e^-rootxlnx is quicker. Much quicker infact.


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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    this is an old one of mine
    Do you mind posting your answers to Q4 of the 2014 paper? Sorry to be a bother but warwick don't have solutions up for that paper and the mark scheme is very unclear as to what they're doing!
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    (Original post by physicsmaths)
    I know that trick but thought the
    e^-rootxlnx is quicker. Much quicker infact.


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    it is the same method essentially ...

    I think in this case taking logs is less messy, but both methods work well.
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    (Original post by Bendak)
    Do you mind posting your answers to Q4 of the 2014 paper? Sorry to be a bother but warwick don't have solutions up for that paper and the mark scheme is very unclear as to what they're doing!
    While you wait my answer to first part is on the second page


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    (Original post by physicsmaths)
    While you wait my answer to first part is on the second page


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    Thanks!
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    (Original post by Bendak)
    Do you mind posting your answers to Q4 of the 2014 paper? Sorry to be a bother but warwick don't have solutions up for that paper and the mark scheme is very unclear as to what they're doing!
    will post it in my "office"
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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    will post it in my "office"
    Any more good sir?
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    (Original post by 11234)
    Any more good sir?
    done? is the answer correct?
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    (Original post by imusti96)
    According to the part (b) they should've also multiplied by (1-(pq)^n) but they didn't.. i don't get why


    Attachment 434365



    Its okay i get it now thanks
    1-(pq)^n tends towards 1 as n approaches infinity. Sorry, should have said
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    Only AS knowledge on this

    corrected the typo/ sorry guys
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  2. File Type: pdf iujyhtgr.pdf (15.9 KB, 52 views)
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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    Only AS knowledge on this
    Might be wrong as I haven't attempted the question, but is there a typo in A? Surely g(x) passes through Q anyway
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    (Original post by Gome44)
    Might be wrong as I haven't attempted the question, but is there a typo in A? Surely g(x) passes through Q anyway
    sure...
    there is a typo one is a P (copy and paste error)

    thanks
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    (Original post by physicsmaths)
    Ah fair enough that's the standard edexcel booklet. Cheers.


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    Just an update: I emailed the exams officer and they said I got 78/100. (Distinction boundary was 68/100.) I was definitely expecting more i.e. 85-95.
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    (Original post by PotterPhysics)
    Just an update: I emailed the exams officer and they said I got 78/100. (Distinction boundary was 68/100.) I was definitely expecting more i.e. 85-95.
    How did you do it. Any tips and where should I do further reading at
    f
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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    sure...
    there is a typo one is a P (copy and paste error)

    thanks
    >touches

    So I'm sketching y = x^2 and y = -x^2 for b)?

    EDIT: But then P and Q are the same... Bleh
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    (Original post by fatart123)
    >touches

    So I'm sketching y = x^2 and y = -x^2 for b)?
    P and Q are distinct
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    (Original post by PotterPhysics)
    Just an update: I emailed the exams officer and they said I got 78/100. (Distinction boundary was 68/100.) I was definitely expecting more i.e. 85-95.
    well done!An excellent score nonetheless! Have you checked the MS ? You can probably remember where you might have gone wrong? I am hoping for a score of 80+ aswell. Which is hopefully a distiction unless the paper is like a C4 paper hehe. Your not taking it again are you?


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    (Original post by TeeEm)
    P and Q are distinct
    Sketch for a = -1, b = 0 then? That seems to work.
 
 
 
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