Is this example an invitation to treat or an offer?

The example :

In a cafe there is a sign that says 'you can use our electric sockets for 30 minutes, but you just buy a £5 token at the checkout"

A guy sees the sign but uses the sockets without paying as he thinks it's too expensive.

A couple months later, the cafe send him a letter stating all the times he didn't pay for the electricity and say he must pay it now.

Is that an invitation to treat or is it an offer and he accepted the offer by physically using the electrical sockets??

Reply 1

Appleorpear

20

How did they send you a letter? How the fk do they know your address? Did they just give it to you in the store?

Reply 2

username3031330

OP

18

Original post by Appleorpear

How did they send you a letter? How the fk do they know your address? Did they just give it to you in the store?

This is just a question given to us. It's just an example - do you know the answer?

Reply 3

username2908878

20

This is some a level law material right haha the pen knife in the window ?

Reply 4

username3031330

OP

18

Original post by Supernova36

This is some a level law material right haha the pen knife in the window ?

It's first year university lol , would you happen to know the answer?

Reply 5

username2908878

20

Original post by a_british_pie

It's first year university lol , would you happen to know the answer?

Ah ok well I remember it from college days I think , I’m doing a masters now so I can’t remember the answer !

Reply 6

The Joker ~

16

The sign is an invitation to treat.. it became an offer upon exiting the store. When he checked (he made the offer) out the shop or store keeper accepted the offer. Both

Reply 7

username3031330

OP

18

Original post by The Joker ~

The sign is an invitation to treat.. it became an offer upon exiting the store. When he checked (he made the offer) out the shop or store keeper accepted the offer. Both

I thought since it was a unilateral contract it would be an offer. And a invitation to treat is saying "make me an offer", but in this case the sign is the offer and not subject to change - so there was never an invitation to treat as the offer was too specific (carlil v carbolic smokeball co 1893)

Reply 8

The Joker ~

16

Original post by a_british_pie

I thought since it was a unilateral contract it would be an offer. And a invitation to treat is saying "make me an offer", but in this case the sign is the offer and not subject to change - so there was never an invitation to treat as the offer was too specific (carlil v carbolic smokeball co 1893)