What's the answer?/how do I do this? (algebraic manipulation)
Original post by Jordan Inglis
As per your other post, what have you tried?
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
(edited 2 years ago)
Original post by mqb2766
As per your other post, what have you tried?
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
Original post by mqb2766
As per your other post, what have you tried?
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
That's what I've done, I don't know how you would eliminate the 2 more terms, or how this could simplify any further. The site gives you options to use tan( ), but I don't see where sin/tan would come up
Original post by mqb2766
As per your other post, what have you tried?
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
With a bit of factorization, pythagorean identity, its not that bad.
On the last line, the squared sign should be applied to only the (ccos(x)-v), not the whole thing, I just wrote it out wrong
Original post by Jordan Inglis
That's what I've done, I don't know how you would eliminate the 2 more terms, or how this could simplify any further. The site gives you options to use tan( ), but I don't see where sin/tan would come up
ok, on the top you;ve got the chance of a sin^2 and a cos^2 which should simplify?
Original post by mqb2766
ok, on the top you;ve got the chance of a sin^2 and a cos^2 which should simplify?
Original post by mqb2766
Just use the same identity again for
-sin^2 = cos^2 - 1
which should get you there.
-sin^2 = cos^2 - 1
which should get you there.
Yeah, I got the answer, tysm!
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