So I've been revising, but I'm struggling to understand the changes in Cost Revenue diagram following an increase in competition due to something like deregulation.
So in a monopolistic competition market in the short run, a firm will operate at profit max ( MC = MR ). However econplusdal states that following deregulation ( more competition in market) the firm will then operate at MC = AR ( allocative efficency ).
I cannot understand why this move is made. To my knowledge deregulation will cause a shift in supply outwards on a normal market diagram. And then the AR and MR curve will shift inwards / down on the cost revenue diagram - as there is less demand for the single firm due to having to share demand with new firms.
Hope someone can help! Thanks!