I'm struggling with this question:
How accurate is it to say that the growth of the professional and merchant classes transformed British society in the years 1625–88?
The content is fine but I was looking at the mark scheme, and it says that rewardable content on the 'against' side would be that other factors transformed British society (as well as what I think is more logical: that society was clearly not 'transformed' due to x, y and z).
How does this make sense? Surely the fact that the rise of the gentry transformed society doesn't negate the fact that the professional and merchant classes could have as well, for example?
I'd appreciate some help.