Original post by whyumadthoBut the reason that a child being molested is bad can be applied to why a penny sweet being stolen is bad, if somebody considers it to be such. If you disagree with the application of your logic, you implicitly disagree with your logic.
How would you demonstrate this in court in the case of the teacher hugging scenario? The only reliable opposing party was the teacher.
You have just said everyone has the instinct to kill a suspected child molester, and the very nature of an instinct means it is an unthinking reaction; therefore, nobody can be indicted for simply acting on their instincts. They had no control over the way they interpreted and reacted to the situation, according to you, so how can you blame them for a biological incapability to express restraint?
Even going by your argument there is still a manifest concern: if a parent interpreted a teacher's hug as a form of groping, and killed/assaulted them for this, and it later transpired that the teacher was indeed groping the child, this parent would be released. In this case, the parent always assumes a hug is a form of molestation and kills/assaults the adult in the exchange for this reason. How can you possibly claim a parent who kills/assaults someone in response to them hugging their child is an amiable, safe citizen who is not a "significant potential threat" to society? Let's take it further: a man drops his pen and upon reaching down to get it, brushes a child's bum with his hand. The parent considers this to be a form of molestation and kills/assaults the man, and it later transpires the man intentionally dropped his pen with the express intention of feeling the child's bum, which means the parent is released. Do you consider a parent who kills/assaults somebody for brushing their hand against a child to be an amiable, safe citizen who is not a "significant potential threat" to society? Due to your absolutism, this parent has now been given free reign to kill/assault whoever may accidentally touch their child on the next occassion, notwithstanding the pending problem of establishing whether or not an instinctive reaction is always justified.
Why? It fits your criteria.
But it fits your criteria. I would say both parties who kill another human on the basis of a suspicion are potential threats to the public, as I do not believe uncontrollable rage is necessarily a valid excuse for killing somebody.
If child molestation and theft can both fit your criteria, why do you still consider one to be worse than another? It makes no sense to advocate the release of somebody who killed a suspected child molester who was later found to be guilty, but not somebody who killed a suspected thief who was later found to be guilty.
But it is still a line, which you seem to be unable to replicate.