A-Level English Language. Language and Gender Models

Hi, I'm struggling to understand the difference between the deficit model and the dominance model. I also don't understand which model Lakoff belongs to, can she belong to both? Does Otto Jesperson also belong to both? Do both models not say that male language use is superior? Surely if women allow themselves to be "dominated", that is evidence of a deficit. Also, where does Lakoff's view on socialisation fit in? I'm very confused and any help would be extremely appreciated :smile:

Reply 1

madsssss999

i got taught that the difference is Dominance is from how women were taught to be subordinate from childhood, whereas Deficit is the way women's language is "abnormal" compared to men's as men's language is the standard form - they are so similar it's dumb.

Lakoff and Jespersen also fit into both Deficit and Dominance, just to make it confusing, so you're safe with mentioning both in either type of question! I think if you say it is a societal error that women feel as though they must be dominated by men then it is less of a deficit, as they aren't lacking anything in the Dominance model, and its just how they are taught to think (if that makes sense????).