PLEASE COULD SOMEONE ANSWER MY QUESTION ASAP! REALLY NEED HELP! If someone intends to cause a battery towards person A but causes GBH to person B does transferred malice apply? Or would the mens rea not transfer since D intended an assault but caused B to get a GBH as they are different offences?
Transferred malice does not operate where the crime which occurred was totally different from that intended. See R v Pembliton (1874) LR 2CCR 119 (offence against the person and property offences are totally different). However, given the similarities in the offences of assault/battery and GBH, it is possible that the attacker is guilty of the offence: see A-G Ref No. 3 of 1994 [1997] 3 All ER 936. It's up to how you interpret these cases and analogise/distinguish them.
Transferred malice does not operate where the crime which occurred was totally different from that intended. See R v Pembliton (1874) LR 2CCR 119 (offence against the person and property offences are totally different). However, given the similarities in the offences of assault/battery and GBH, it is possible that the attacker is guilty of the offence: see A-G Ref No. 3 of 1994 [1997] 3 All ER 936. It's up to how you interpret these cases and analogise/distinguish them.