sine (pheta) = 1/QS Then QS = tan(pheta) but after that point I'm lost because surely PS = QS / tan (pheta) so doesn't that mean QS would rearrange to PStan(pheta) Also tan is sine/cos. So I'm really confused now. If we was following the the expressions and rearranging as we go then I must be doing something wrong in my workings out, but I don't know what it is.
sine (pheta) = 1/QS Then QS = tan(pheta) but after that point I'm lost because surely PS = QS / tan (pheta) so doesn't that mean QS would rearrange to PStan(pheta) Also tan is sine/cos. So I'm really confused now. If we was following the the expressions and rearranging as we go then I must be doing something wrong in my workings out, but I don't know what it is.
sin theta = opp/hyp = QS/1
tan theta = QS/PS so PS =QS/tan theta now sub in QS